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"We take the Lord's Supper every Sunday morning,
but only offer it Sunday night. Why not take it both times? Sunday night is also a worship time. Could you discuss this question with others and get back with me." — Website Visitor "Brother Davidson, What did the apostle mean in 2 Cor. 8:14 when he said that there might be equality? I have heard various explanations. I would appreciate reading your answer." — D. R., Missouri Harrell Davidson |
Question One: Via the internet comes the following question and comment — "We take the Lord's Supper every Sunday morning, but only offer it on Sunday night. Why not take it both times? Sunday night is also a worship time. Could you discuss this question with others and get back with me." Answer to One:Matthew's account of the instituting of the Supper is found in Matt. 26:26-29. Please note that verse 29 says, "But I say unto you, I will not drink henceforth of this fruit of the vine, until that day when I drink it new with you in my Father's kingdom." In instituting the Lord's Supper our Lord essentially is saying not now, but later in My kingdom. In Acts 2:42 Luke wrote, "And they continued stedfastly in the apostles' doctrine and fellowship, and in breaking of bread, and in prayers." The Kingdom had its beginning earlier in the same chapter of Acts. They are now communing with the Lord in His kingdom — church. In Acts 20:7, Luke the inspired writer, said in part, "And upon the first day of the week, when the disciples came together to break bread..." In First Corinthians 2 Paul also addressed the subject of the Supper. In every instance of the partaking of the Lord's Supper, we have no authority of any apostle, or first century Christian, partaking of the Lord's Supper more than once on the Lord's Day. This is significant in that without divine authority we would be adding to the Word of God (cf. Rev. 22:18) by partaking more often than commanded. We also worship in song and prayer on Wednesday night. Both are worship, but we are not authorized to partake of the Supper every time we come together to worship. We well remember in the late 1940's and mid 1950's that there were many all day services on the Lord's Day, but never was the Lord's Supper partaken of more than once by anyone. In Acts 20 Paul preached until midnight, but there is no indication that the audience was eating the Supper all during this time. We are commanded to partake on the Lord's Day. Sometimes, due to health or other legitimate reasons, one may not be able to participate with the rest of the saints in partaking of the Supper. Since it is still the Lord's Day, and we are under commandment to partake, if able, it is Scriptural for those who could not do so earlier to eat and drink the Supper at another worship service — by doing so they fulfill the Lord's command. But partaking more than once is not commanded, and as such, is not authorized in the Scriptures. We must do all by the authority of Jesus Christ (cf. Col. 3:17). Question Two: "Brother Davidson, What did the apostle mean in 2 Cor. 8:14 when he said that there might be equality? I have heard various explanations. I would appreciate reading your answer." — D. R., Missouri Answer to Two:As in all cases the immediate context and broader context is very important in understanding any Scripture. The late brother H. A. Dixon and brother G. K. Wallace kept on emphasizing context, context, context in the mid 1950's when the writer was in their Bible classes at Freed-Hardeman College. Look at the passage itself: "But by an equality, that now at this time your abundance may be a supply for their want, that their abundance also may be a supply for your want: that there may be equality" (2 Cor. 8:14). Please let me say that this does not teach that we are to give to bring the poor up to our level or to give until we become poor. Equality cannot be reached that way. If all would go back to Second Corinthians 8 and begin with verse one the picture will become abundantly clear. Paul intended to use the church at Corinth as an example of how people should give. Corinth was not responding in a positive way. Paul used Macedonia, a very poor congregation physically, as an example to attempt to get Corinth to take stock of the great blessings that they were receiving. Compared to Macedonia, Corinth was wealthy. According to the first several verses of 2 Corinthians 8 Macedonia actually had need that someone help them. There is only one thing wrong with that statement. While they knew they were poor, dwelling in poverty, they first gave themselves to the Lord (cf. 2 Cor. 8:5). This record reminds the writer of the conditions that prevailed on the farm during World War II. Almost all of us were poor, but no one, including us, knew such was the case. Paul was not readily agreeable to receive a contribution from the Macedonians according to verses 4 and 5. Corinth was able financially a year ago (verse 10), but for some reason they stopped or lacked in their giving. Paul is using Macedonia as an example for Corinth to follow. It should have been the other way around. Now get the picture! When those who are poor and those who are rich have given according as they have prospered (cf. 1 Cor. 16:1-2 & 2 Cor. 8:9) there is equality. It is still that way. If the widow gives her two mites and the wealthy gives as he has prospered there is equality. These great verses were never intended to teach that we should give until others are brought up to our level or us down to their level. When we all have given, as we ought there is equality and this is what Paul is talking about. One is not necessarily blessed for being poor financially or wealthy. One is blessed in these matters when each has given as prospered. Then and only then have they each done their part. |