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In a recent issue of the Gospel Preceptor, several of us were asked to write on various
topics surrounding the role of women in the service of the Lord and His church. I was asked to
write an article dealing with the question of a woman translating sermons to an audience which
includes men in attendance. There were a few questions and an objection or two arising from
that article. Our editor, brother Jerry Brewer, has asked me to address those, which I am happy
to do.
Many, it seems, have not really thought this question through, and the type of objections that were raised, if carried to their logical ends, would permit women preachers — which I think none of the objectors really want to see, for God forbids it. Let us first clarify the question at hand: "May a woman orally translate a sermon that is being preached by a man to an audience which includes men in attendance?" One questioner was a bit confused by how this subject was worded in the last issue of this paper. We apologize for that confusion. The question was not worded accurately, and there was a typo or two in my conclusion. In my aforementioned article, I gave a long answer first, then a short answer. I'll give a short answer first, then explain it. The answer: No, she may not. Here is why. If the gathering being considered is one for worship, with the various avenues of worship being engaged in, a woman is not to speak but is to be silent when it comes to teaching, preaching or conveying instructions from one language to another. It is a shame for her to speak in these situations. The apostle Paul said so. He told the brethren at Corinth, "for God is not a God of confusion, but of peace. As in all the churches of the saints, let the women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but let them be in subjection, as also saith the law. And if they would learn anything, let them ask their own husbands at home: for it is shameful for a woman to speak in the church" (1 Corinthians 14:33-35 ASV). Her "keeping silence" is a word that means to hold one's peace, not to speak at all. Clear? Yes, as clear as crystal! I know that there will be some who object to the use of this passage, but I cannot answer all objections in one article. This article will answer only those objections that have come to our editor. There are other gatherings which are not necessarily assemblies for worship, but will include spiritual activities such as prayer and instruction. What is a woman to do? Paul tells us through his instructions to the young preacher Timothy. She is to learn and not to teach. She is to be quiet, but not soundless. She is in no way to have any sort of dominion over a man or men. When he wrote First Timothy, Paul said, "I desire therefore that the men pray in every place, lifting up holy hands, without wrath and disputing" (1 Timothy 2:8 ASV). The word "men" in this text refers to males, not simply "mankind." But he goes on: "Let a woman learn in quietness with all subjection. But I permit not a woman to teach, nor to have dominion over a man, but to be in quietness" (1 Timothy 2:11,12 ASV). In this text, the word "quietness" refers to demeanor and attitude, not necessarily soundlessness. She may speak, or even ask a question, which she was not allowed to do in the First Corinthians passage because that was a time for worship which included all the five avenues which we observe today in worship to our Father in the name of His Son. This First Timothy passage lends itself to Bible class-type settings. And please note that these instructions are for "every place" (v. 8). Clear? It's as plain as can be! Objection Number One:
Since God's generic authority allows for us to use chalk boards, microphones, overheads, etc., these may be used to carry out the authorized actions of teaching and preaching. But women are under law to Christ (1 Corinthians 9:21). Her speaking — which results in her teaching — is not an expedient because there is no law permitting her to so act. Rather, God's law says she may not speak nor teach. Objection Number Two:
Having been a part of evangelistic work in foreign lands for many years, I know that when a different language is involved, the one who is using your language is the one you pay attention to, and from whom you are learning. Go to Walmart and listen to all the people talking. You cannot distinguish much of what is being said by any. But, go to a market in Riga, Latvia where there is no English being spoken, and when one begins to speak in English that person's speech stands out like a corn stalk in a wheat field. You pay attention to that one. If "all that this woman was doing was translating," and the lesson and teaching "belonged" to the preacher, what would prevent her from simply standing before an audience and translating one of the great sermons out of the Bible to them? If she could do this, could she read to them from a Bible in their own language without doing any translation at all? If not, why not? From a letter to the editor that comes from Texas, we have a couple of more objections. This person wrote "However, if there is no capable man present then I believe that a capable woman may do so" (translate a sermon as set out above). This man "believes" something that first of all cannot be sustained, and second of all cannot be found in the Bible. Now, since faith cometh of hearing, and hearing by the Word of God (Romans 10:17), what word did God give that caused this man to so believe? What kind of "faith" is this? As with the former objector's error of using the word "only," this man uses the word "merely" three times. There is no "merely" about the vital work of translating the Gospel into a language an audience can understand. This is spiritual life and death work we are discussing. His First Assertion:
We are talking about the words of God! The preacher had better be speaking God's words in his sermon, or he is no preacher of the Gospel (1 Peter 4:11)! Finally, hear the Lord: "For by thy words thou shalt be justified, and by thy words thou shalt be condemned" (Matthew 12:37). This man is actually saying "Every word in our Bibles is merely the word of God." Merely? Consider this. Were the apostles "merely" the vehicles for the Holy Spirit's sermon on Pentecost? Were they teaching? Were they "merely" conveying God's thoughts to the audience? Then explain why what they were "merely conveying" is called their doctrine four times, their teaching nine times, and that they were said to teach three times, and all of these in the book of Acts alone! Merely! His Second Assertion:
Final Assertion:
To conclude that women who teach men in another language is not a violation of Scripture, is to conclude erroneously! To allow such to take place is to sin. Let any who would deny this, meet me on the polemic platform to prove such foolhardy assertions. |